Well, I think that the "victim had it coming" argument is made too often and too early, to the point where it has been all but entirely discredited . . . and for the most part with good reason. That's why I'm wanting to look at it again, because the fact of its overuse doesn't necessarily mean that it has no value, depending on the facts of the case.
I don't think the "she had it coming" argument holds up except perhaps as an assumption of the risk - implicit consent, if you will - type of argument, and it's hard to accept this argument to obviate a guy's criminal responsibility where the behavior is grossly offensive, such as he helped hold her down while others had sex with her . . . or had sex with her while others were holding her down.
I could see this argument being used more plausibly where parents are sued for the party at their house . . .
. . . the problem that I have is that the girl who engages in this behavior gets to do so without an apparently obligation to others, which is a kind of privilege that I'm not sure I think is right either . . .
. . . so the Romeo/Juliet situation, where the guy and girl are romantically/lustily inclined - and reclined - toward each other, maybe that's the context where this sort of line of thinking is more acceptable . . .
. . . I dunno . . . that's why I'm asking.