There is recourse.So the words below only mean these rights exist if congress says so? if the VRA were repealed, it would be legal to block groups from voting and there is no recourse to this amendment?
All citizens of the United States who are otherwise qualified by law to vote at any election by the people in any State, Territory, district, county, city, parish, township, school district, municipality, or other territorial subdivision, shall be entitled and allowed to vote at all such elections, without distinction of race, color, or previous condition of servitude; any constitution, law, custom, usage, or regulation of any State or Territory, or by or under its authority, to the contrary notwithstanding.
Look up the oral arguments for Devellier v. Texas. Court is now considering whether the Takings Clause is self executing.